Chris Mortensen & #8207;3 minutes ago
NFL has found that 11 of the Patriots footballs used in Sunday’s AFC title game were under-inflated by 2 lbs each, per league sources.
has to lie right now. If he comes out and admits it was his doing he risks being suspended for the super bowl.
Not saying that the NFL would do that, but if he admits anything he opens up that possibility. Now he just has to hope truth doesnt come out for at least another 10 or so days
Hard to imagine the Pats being able to stall for more than a week.
They wont have to stall, the league probably might want to. If they conclude their investigation before the SB, and find the Pats at fault, fans may want an immediate punishment for the SB. And if it includes suspensions of Brady and/BB, that ruins the SB, and will cost the league a huge amount of money.
Serves the league better to put things off till after the SB.
I have seen this incorrect interpretation many times in the last couple days, that this is a 16% loss of air pressure (2/12.5).
When we say something (a ball, a tire) is of 0 psi, it does not mean it has no air pressure at all; it does not mean that it is 0 psi in the absolute sense. It means it has the same pressure as the natural condition, which is 14.7 psi. This is the pressure that your skin and my skin are under at this moment walking on the street.
Therefore, when the ref pumps the ball to the proper pressure of 12.5 psi, its absolute value is 12.5 + 14.7 = 28.2 psi.
And after it loses 2 psi, its absolute value is now 26.2 psi, for a loss of (1 - 26.2/28.2) = 7%, thus not require nearly the impossible natural condition (wetness, temperature drop) for it to happen as compared to a 16% loss.
I am not on the New England side at all. I believe the balls were intentionally altered during the game. Just physics here.
Admit I understand almost none of this (the math), but if science is the reason for the psi drop, wouldn't it stand to reason if all the balls were measured pre-game and were in the same range, and all the balls brought outdoors and made available to each teams ball boys at the same time that science would have equally effected all 12 of the Pats balls (only 11 of 12 were under-inflated) and all of the Colts balls?
It seems like science doesn't pick and choose whose balls to reduce the psi on.
It seems like science doesn't pick and choose whose balls to reduce the psi on.
You are correct. I said I was only talking about scientific calculations.
Two facts make the nature of this incident very clear: 1. The balls on the Colts' side did not exhibit the same phenomenon; and 2. After the deflated balls were inflated back to the proper pressure at half time, they remained so at the end of the game.
So science dictates that there must be some man-made reasons behind this.
I have seen this incorrect interpretation many times in the last couple days, that this is a 16% loss of air pressure (2/12.5).
When we say something (a ball, a tire) is of 0 psi, it does not mean it has no air pressure at all; it does not mean that it is 0 psi in the absolute sense. It means it has the same pressure as the natural condition, which is 14.7 psi. This is the pressure that your skin and my skin are under at this moment walking on the street.
Therefore, when the ref pumps the ball to the proper pressure of 12.5 psi, its absolute value is 12.5 + 14.7 = 28.2 psi.
And after it loses 2 psi, its absolute value is now 26.2 psi, for a loss of (1 - 26.2/28.2) = 7%, thus not require nearly the impossible natural condition (wetness, temperature drop) for it to happen as compared to a 16% loss.
I am not on the New England side at all. I believe the balls were intentionally altered during the game. Just physics here.
i think your off on this. It is 2 lbs per square inch of loss pressure/ In addition all the balls from both the Pats and the Colts were measured at the start of the game and were fine. At halftime ONLY the pats balls (11 out of 12) showed the same 2lbs loss pressure. They the refilled the balls to the proper weight and weighed them again at the end of the game, all did not show any kind of loss pressure close to the 2 lbs
i think your off on this. It is 2 lbs per square inch of loss pressure/ In addition all the balls from both the Pats and the Colts were measured at the start of the game and were fine. At halftime ONLY the pats balls (11 out of 12) showed the same 2lbs loss pressure. They the refilled the balls to the proper weight and weighed them again at the end of the game, all did not show any kind of loss pressure close to the 2 lbs [/quote]
I am off ... on what? None of what you said is news to me.
All I am saying is that the "loss of 2 psi" statement means it dropped from 28.2 to 26.2, which is about 7%, instead of the commonly mistaken and misquoted from 12.5 to 10.5, which is about 16%.
That's all I am saying, and I do believe the Patriots altered their game balls.
GREEN BAY, Wis. -- Aaron Rodgers says NFL referees take air out of footballs to be used in games, and he doesn't think it should happen.
[...]
"I have a major problem with the way it goes down, to be honest with you," Rodgers said Tuesday on his ESPN Milwaukee radio show. "The majority of the time, they take air out of the football. I think that, for me, is a disadvantage."
Rodgers said he likes the ball to be inflated because of his strong grip pressure and large hand size but doesn't believe that's the norm.
I know the Pats are on a par with the Yankees nationally when it comes to team hate, but is it possible the official(s) screwed up based on what Rogers said? If teams where giving them properly inflated balls why were raking any air out? If teams where giving them balls inflated to the wrong PSI were they responsible to get them to the correct PSI?
Even an NFL ref would probably notice if the balls had been in a Sauna for several hours. I know PV=nRT but how do you determine pressure loss for a football per degree?
P1/T1 = P2/T2 (temps in Kelvin)
T2 = (P2/P1)*T1
So the game temp was 50 deg F (10 deg C = 283 K). Supposedly the ball was tested at 12.5 PSI pre-game and then dropped to 10.5 PSI
That would mean the starting temp would have to be 337 K or ~145 deg F.
I still would like to know who maintains custody of the balls prior to the pre-game pressure check. If there are no rules and regulations on how and where the balls are stored then I don't think my theory is that far fetched and technically it wouldn't be cheating. If a QB prefers an over inflated ball then put them in the freezer before testing. If they prefer it under inflated then put it in the sauna, fill it with hot air, or whatever it takes to pass the test.
Quote:
has to lie right now. If he comes out and admits it was his doing he risks being suspended for the super bowl.
Not saying that the NFL would do that, but if he admits anything he opens up that possibility. Now he just has to hope truth doesnt come out for at least another 10 or so days
Hard to imagine the Pats being able to stall for more than a week.
They wont have to stall, the league probably might want to. If they conclude their investigation before the SB, and find the Pats at fault, fans may want an immediate punishment for the SB. And if it includes suspensions of Brady and/BB, that ruins the SB, and will cost the league a huge amount of money.
Serves the league better to put things off till after the SB.
I have seen this incorrect interpretation many times in the last couple days, that this is a 16% loss of air pressure (2/12.5).
When we say something (a ball, a tire) is of 0 psi, it does not mean it has no air pressure at all; it does not mean that it is 0 psi in the absolute sense. It means it has the same pressure as the natural condition, which is 14.7 psi. This is the pressure that your skin and my skin are under at this moment walking on the street.
Therefore, when the ref pumps the ball to the proper pressure of 12.5 psi, its absolute value is 12.5 + 14.7 = 28.2 psi.
And after it loses 2 psi, its absolute value is now 26.2 psi, for a loss of (1 - 26.2/28.2) = 7%, thus not require nearly the impossible natural condition (wetness, temperature drop) for it to happen as compared to a 16% loss.
I am not on the New England side at all. I believe the balls were intentionally altered during the game. Just physics here.
Admit I understand almost none of this (the math), but if science is the reason for the psi drop, wouldn't it stand to reason if all the balls were measured pre-game and were in the same range, and all the balls brought outdoors and made available to each teams ball boys at the same time that science would have equally effected all 12 of the Pats balls (only 11 of 12 were under-inflated) and all of the Colts balls?
It seems like science doesn't pick and choose whose balls to reduce the psi on.
It seems like science doesn't pick and choose whose balls to reduce the psi on.
You are correct. I said I was only talking about scientific calculations.
Two facts make the nature of this incident very clear: 1. The balls on the Colts' side did not exhibit the same phenomenon; and 2. After the deflated balls were inflated back to the proper pressure at half time, they remained so at the end of the game.
So science dictates that there must be some man-made reasons behind this.
I have seen this incorrect interpretation many times in the last couple days, that this is a 16% loss of air pressure (2/12.5).
When we say something (a ball, a tire) is of 0 psi, it does not mean it has no air pressure at all; it does not mean that it is 0 psi in the absolute sense. It means it has the same pressure as the natural condition, which is 14.7 psi. This is the pressure that your skin and my skin are under at this moment walking on the street.
Therefore, when the ref pumps the ball to the proper pressure of 12.5 psi, its absolute value is 12.5 + 14.7 = 28.2 psi.
And after it loses 2 psi, its absolute value is now 26.2 psi, for a loss of (1 - 26.2/28.2) = 7%, thus not require nearly the impossible natural condition (wetness, temperature drop) for it to happen as compared to a 16% loss.
I am not on the New England side at all. I believe the balls were intentionally altered during the game. Just physics here.
i think your off on this. It is 2 lbs per square inch of loss pressure/ In addition all the balls from both the Pats and the Colts were measured at the start of the game and were fine. At halftime ONLY the pats balls (11 out of 12) showed the same 2lbs loss pressure. They the refilled the balls to the proper weight and weighed them again at the end of the game, all did not show any kind of loss pressure close to the 2 lbs
i think your off on this. It is 2 lbs per square inch of loss pressure/ In addition all the balls from both the Pats and the Colts were measured at the start of the game and were fine. At halftime ONLY the pats balls (11 out of 12) showed the same 2lbs loss pressure. They the refilled the balls to the proper weight and weighed them again at the end of the game, all did not show any kind of loss pressure close to the 2 lbs [/quote]
I am off ... on what? None of what you said is news to me.
All I am saying is that the "loss of 2 psi" statement means it dropped from 28.2 to 26.2, which is about 7%, instead of the commonly mistaken and misquoted from 12.5 to 10.5, which is about 16%.
That's all I am saying, and I do believe the Patriots altered their game balls.
[...]
"I have a major problem with the way it goes down, to be honest with you," Rodgers said Tuesday on his ESPN Milwaukee radio show. "The majority of the time, they take air out of the football. I think that, for me, is a disadvantage."
Rodgers said he likes the ball to be inflated because of his strong grip pressure and large hand size but doesn't believe that's the norm.
I know the Pats are on a par with the Yankees nationally when it comes to team hate, but is it possible the official(s) screwed up based on what Rogers said? If teams where giving them properly inflated balls why were raking any air out? If teams where giving them balls inflated to the wrong PSI were they responsible to get them to the correct PSI?
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Quote:
Even an NFL ref would probably notice if the balls had been in a Sauna for several hours. I know PV=nRT but how do you determine pressure loss for a football per degree?
P1/T1 = P2/T2 (temps in Kelvin)
T2 = (P2/P1)*T1
So the game temp was 50 deg F (10 deg C = 283 K). Supposedly the ball was tested at 12.5 PSI pre-game and then dropped to 10.5 PSI
That would mean the starting temp would have to be 337 K or ~145 deg F.
I still would like to know who maintains custody of the balls prior to the pre-game pressure check. If there are no rules and regulations on how and where the balls are stored then I don't think my theory is that far fetched and technically it wouldn't be cheating. If a QB prefers an over inflated ball then put them in the freezer before testing. If they prefer it under inflated then put it in the sauna, fill it with hot air, or whatever it takes to pass the test.
Link - ( New Window )